The 1940 movie, “PRIDE AND PREJUDICE” did not have any Victorian costumes. Why do people keep making that mistake? If those dresses were Victorian, the above costume would have never appeared in “THE PIRATE”, which was set during the 1820s. “PRIDE AND PREJUDICE” with Greer Garson was set either in the late 1820s or the early 1830s.
And the Jane Austen novel was set during the end of the 1790s, despite being published in 1813. People keep making that mistake as well.
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Costume Commentary
The 1940 movie, “PRIDE AND PREJUDICE” did not have any Victorian costumes. Why do people keep making that mistake? If those dresses were Victorian, the above costume would have never appeared in “THE PIRATE”, which was set during the 1820s. “PRIDE AND PREJUDICE” with Greer Garson was set either in the late 1820s or the early 1830s.
And the Jane Austen novel was set during the end of the 1790s, despite being published in 1813. People keep making that mistake as well.
From IMDB: “Although Jane Austen’s novel was set in Regency England (late 18th-early 19th century), the period was set at a later time. This anachronism has been explained in a couple of ways. Those more favourably disposed to the studio system claim the styles of the Regency Period (when women’s dresses resembled nightgowns) were thought too plain for public taste, so new gowns were created in the voluminous Victorian style of the 1830s to give it a more romantic flair. Others have pointed out that because MGM wasn’t willing to put a huge budget behind the risky venture, costumes left over fromGone with the Wind (1939) were altered slightly and placed on background players to save money. New gowns in the same flouncy style were designed for the female leads.”
Thanks! I’ve heard this rumored several times, but have yet to find any evidence toward it. If you find any, please do let me know! I’d love to post them!
I don’t know why “Pride and Prejudice” had Victorian dresses… Really, I don’t.
They’re supposed to belong to the Regency period…